Top Ten Faulty Arguments in anti-Apocrypha Apologetics (Part 1)
1. All non-canonical texts are Gnostic. Since when was the Gospel of Peter a Gnostic text? What about the Infancy Gospel of Thomas? Such identifications belong in scholarship of the nineteenth-century (when we knew less about Gnosticism) not the twenty-first century. Either the modern apologists know nothing of recent scholarship on the texts (which is likely) or they intentionally call all non-canonical texts Gnostic in order to heap scorn upon them (which is also likely)—i.e., Gnosticism is bad, all non-canonical texts are Gnostic; therefore, all non-canonical texts are bad.
2. Canonical texts are early compositions and non-canonical texts are late. The late dating of non-canonical texts is due to two factors: because Gnosticism is a late second-century phenomenon, and because the physical evidence for Gnostic texts is no earlier than the mid to late second century. These arguments tend to swirl around the dating of the Gospel of Thomas, so I will respond specifically to arguments about that text. First, even if we grant that full-blown Gnostic Christianity is a late second century phenomenon (well, mid-second century really if we include Valentinus and Marcion), it is not entirely secure that Thomas and a few other “Gnostic” texts are truly Gnostic. Thomas, for one, seems to have been Gnosticized somewhat between the time of its origins (reflected better in the Greek fragments) and the version found at Nag Hammadi. If anything, Thomas is “proto-Gnostic” which could fit into the milieu of at least the pastoral epistles and the Johannine epistles, texts that criticize groups who have Gnostic features (liberal scholars would date these two sets of texts to the late first/early second century while conservatives would date them to the mid-first century which, by their own admission, would make “proto-Gnosticism” very early indeed). As for the second argument, the physical evidence for non-canonical texts is just as good as, if not better than, canonical texts—i.e., there is very little evidence (canonical or non-canonical) that dates before the mid-second century. The conservative writers would never say that Mark is late second-century based on the earliest manuscript (P45 dated ca. 175), so why do they do that for Thomas?
3. The Non-canonical gospels are not “gospels.” The argument goes that the NT gospels are biographies whereas the non-canonical gospels are, for the most part, sayings collections or dialogues (a few exceptions are sometimes noted—e.g., Gospel of Peter, Infancy Gospel of Thomas—but are not allowed to affect the argument); therefore, the non-canonical gospels are not truly “gospels.” Yet it is not clear that “gospel” was used in antiquity to designate a genre of literature; even today the term connotes more the message of a text than its form. Also, evidence indicates that the NT gospels and at least some of the early non-canonical texts did not originally bear titles (e.g., the Infancy Gospel of Thomas is more accurately called “The Childhood of Jesus”; the Infancy Gospel of James was probably originally “The Birth of Mary”). Even if the full range of the texts were originally termed “gospels,” to identify a genre of literature by selecting four similar texts from the group is like taking knock-knock jokes and declaring all other forms of jokes not jokes at all.
4. The writers and readers of non-canonical texts were hostile to the canonical texts. The conservative writers want to make Gnostics out to be villains opposing orthodoxy and thus the non-canonical texts are said to be written in order to replace or refute the established canonical texts. But the non-canonical writers often acknowledge their debt to earlier writers and expect their readers to be knowledgeable about these texts. The CA writers have a particular interpretation of the canonical texts which they employ but rarely do they seek to refute or replace them. The conservative writers seem to have trouble thinking that anyone could possibly read Gnostic ideas into or out of canonical texts, but that is precisely what they did—e.g., docetists saw their christology reflected in Mark and John, the Treatise on the Resurrection cites Paul’s letters to the Colossians and Ephesians, etc.
5. Extant versions of non-canonical texts are identical to their autographs. To be fair, many liberal scholars are guilty of this same error. They neglect to take into consideration that non-canonical texts change considerably over time, with stories embroidered, added, and removed depending on the copyist’s sensibilities. One must be very careful, therefore, to argue for a particular writer’s viewpoints by using a form of the text based on much later manuscripts.
(more to come…)
I have been reading your posts on this subject with interest even though I disagree at times. I’m wondering if, now that you are pointing out specific failings, if you could actually make reference these shortcomings. I have read a few of the books that you are critiquing and I don’t see these problems. That’s why I would appreciate the citations.
This is a wonderful post. Very well thought through. I look forward to reading your next five. I’ll mention this on my blog too.
Indeed. I am amazed at the number of people who, when I say that I am doing a doctorate on Gospel of Thomas say “Oh, yes, the Gnostic gospel”. However, when I was studying theology at a far from conservative college (seminary), the working definition we were given of Gnosticism only involved an emphasis on knowledge rather than faith. There was no mention of the very different understanding of creation or the existence of various divine and semi-divine beings that caused Michael Williams to suggest “biblical demiurgy” as a better way of naming Gnosticism.
I often hear that the reason that non-canonical books fell out of use is because of power struggles in the church that caused them to be suppressed. It seems like that is a common assertion, that they were suppressed, in sort of a conspiracy theory way. What is your view?
Is it possible that they just fell out of use because the communities no longer found use in them or they were no longer able to speak to the communities in a fresh way? Or that they just liked other documents a whole lot more?
Just wondering.
Blessings,
Bryan L
For me most of these are only problematic when absolutised and generalised. Try using ‘some’ for 1 and 4; and ‘many’ for 2 and 3. Then I’d (probably) have to agree with them (as you probably would too).
But if the problem is over-generalisation, is this sort of response appropriate?
By the way, P45 is not 175; more like mid-third century (Mark is cited by Irenaeus at around the same date so the point remains).
I’m confused by this statement …
“First, even if we grant that full-blown Gnostic Christianity is a late second century phenomenon (well, mid-first century really if we include Valentinus and Marcion)”
Marcion was active in the 140s and 150s while Valentinus was in the 150s and 160s—both of these would be mid-second century, not mid-first.
Otherwise, good observations!
Great posting, thanks!
I believe the rationale for categorizing Thomas as Gnostic is the introductory remark about knowing the meaning of the text. It has a distinctive Gnostic ring to it. One scholar has suggested that the true gnosticism is not so much in knowing the meaning of the verses, but in the process of seeking out that meaning.